I am a 30+ year old male. Two and half weeks ago I had a total lapse of judgement and went to a massage parlour in London. I feel desperately ashamed about the encounter. I had oral sex performed on me which was protected with a condom. What is worrying me is that I tentatively licked her clitoris for about 3 minutes. When I started she was completely bone dry but cant be certain a small amount vaginal secretions did not its way into my mouth. I am pretty sure not as it was probably just my saliva on her. After the encounter I was home in 15 minutes and immediately had a shower and rinsed my mouth out. I did not have any oral cuts or ulcers that I was aware of at the time.
The girl appeared healthy and was very clean - she used wet wipes on me before putting on the condom and afterwards.
My questions:
1) I am concerned about my exposure to HIV, and indeed STDs given the details of encounter. I read a number of differing opinions on the risks of exposure through cunnilingus, some sites state there is no risk or very small risk. The CDC web site states that there have been cases of transmission through oral-vaginal contact. What is your view/opinion of my exposure risk?
2) I had consideredd getting the PCR test done at 10 days but the 4 or 5 day watinging period cited by private clinics would have killed me. I intend to have 4th generation DUO test (perahps at your clinic) at day 27/28. Would this test be conslusive or do i need to follow it up with a test at 3 months?
1) I am concerned about my exposure to HIV, and indeed STDs given the details of encounter. I read a number of differing opinions on the risks of exposure through cunnilingus, some sites state there is no risk or very small risk. The CDC web site states that there have been cases of transmission through oral-vaginal contact. What is your view/opinion of my exposure risk? The risk of HIV is extremely low, if not zero. Therefore a HIV test is not even indicated. However there is a risk of throat Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea, Herpes and even Syphilis
2) I had consideredd getting the PCR test done at 10 days but the 4 or 5 day watinging period cited by private clinics would have killed me. I intend to have 4th generation DUO test (perahps at your clinic) at day 27/28. Would this test be conslusive or do i need to follow it up with a test at 3 months? This test would be fully concluisve without the need to have any further tests
I have two follow up questions if you don't mind.
1) I am planning to get tested for STDs and HIV at the 28 day mark, is that sufficient time for exposure to STDs (Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea, Herpes and Syphilis) to be detectable?
2) Do you have any data on vaginal-oral transmission of HIV? I know you said its an extremely low risk, and I guess I am being a worry wart about my exposure. Sorry.
1) I am planning to get tested for STDs and HIV at the 28 day mark, is that sufficient time for exposure to STDs (Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea, Herpes and Syphilis) to be detectable?This will be fine for all the conditions you mentioned except for herpes 1 and 2 - the recommended interval for this test is 12 weeks after exposure. You could take a test at 28 days and then another at 6 weeks and if the score or "titre" was rising substantially then that would indicate that you did have a new infection of one of these illnesses. I do think though that herpes infection from what you describe is really fantastically unlikely.
2) Do you have any data on vaginal-oral transmission of HIV? I know you said its an extremely low risk, and I guess I am being a worry wart about my exposure. Sorry. It is an extremely low risk - there is some data but the trouble with all data in this area is that it is a little vague - as most people do not engage in just one sexual activity - there are recorded cases in the literature of people becoming infected by performing cunninglingus - although the numbers are very small indeed and of course rely on the fact that the woman herself would have to be HIV positive which in itself is unlikely
I got tested for just about everything under the sun (STDs) and it all came back negative. The HIV 1 & 2 test stated "not detected" which I assume is the same?