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  #1  
Old 04-07-2011, 03:28 AM
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Default Results of Test in Relation to Risk

Hello Doctors:

Thank you so much for taking the time to read this.

I will briefly explain the incident.

I had an encounter with a transsexual (TS) sex worker in Thailand.

I think most of the encounter was no-risk HIV: Kissing, mutual masturbation where saliva/genital secretions may have been used as lubrication for each other, and having my anus fingered. (Sorry to be graphic).

What I am concerned about is my having performing oral sex on this transsexual, very briefly, a matter of seconds, with no ejaculation. I am almost certain s/he (TS) was wearing a condom.

I followed up with full std screening that included an HIV Duo at about 27-28 days and one at about 46-47 days. Both were negative.

What I would really like answered is:

1) Is everything conclusive for HIV (All other STDs were NEG)? Are further HIV tests required?

2) Does it matter significantly that during the oral sex my throat had been pretty sore (I know the next morning I coughed up a tiny bit of blood in my mucus) and I also had a slight burn on the roof of my mouth from eating hot food a few days before (so there was a tender patch on the skin)?

3) Even if a condom were NOT used for my performing oral sex (I know doctors don't like hypotheticals, but I'm not certain I used one), would you say these tests are conclusive?

4) Is it important that before the 28 day test, I experienced pretty severe anal itching (for 2 weeks), and a few days before the 46-47 day Duo (but not at the time of the test), I had a pretty sore throat (it lasted only a few days, was worse at night than during the day; I don't think I had a fever and did not have a rash).


5) Can I get on with my life and resume sexual contact with my female partner?

Thank you so much. I know I must sound batshit crazy, but you know how anxiety over HIV can affect peoples' psyches.
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  #2  
Old 04-07-2011, 09:39 AM
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Hello,
Thank you for your post and welcome to our forum.
I will answer each of your questions here below:

1) Is everything conclusive for HIV (All other STDs were NEG)? Are further HIV tests required? Yes, your negative test is conclusive and you do not need to have any further tests. I assume that you have been tested for all other STDs in throat and penis, and that all those tests were negative

2) Does it matter significantly that during the oral sex my throat had been pretty sore (I know the next morning I coughed up a tiny bit of blood in my mucus) and I also had a slight burn on the roof of my mouth from eating hot food a few days before (so there was a tender patch on the skin)?No, it does not matter.

3) Even if a condom were NOT used for my performing oral sex (I know doctors don't like hypotheticals, but I'm not certain I used one), would you say these tests are conclusive?
Yes, they are conclusive. This is all assuming a condom had not been used. If a condom was used, no risk at all whatsoever.

4) Is it important that before the 28 day test, I experienced pretty severe anal itching (for 2 weeks), and a few days before the 46-47 day Duo (but not at the time of the test), I had a pretty sore throat (it lasted only a few days, was worse at night than during the day; I don't think I had a fever and did not have a rash).
Those symptoms are not relevant to HIV; if you were fingered anally, it might be related to an STD in the anus; and the same would apply for the sore throat. I assume that you had a throat swab ( and an anal swab, bearing the symptoms) to exclude Chlamydia and/or Gonorrhoea as the cause of your symptoms.

5) Can I get on with my life and resume sexual contact with my female partner
Yes, provided you have been tested for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea (in thorat, penis and anus) and Syphilis

Best wishes,
José
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  #3  
Old 04-07-2011, 11:02 AM
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Hi Dr. Jose,

Thanks so much for your advice.

Just a few quick followups:

1) This is going to sounds so, so stupid, but better safe than sorry. I just want to clarify that you realize that the Transsexual I performed the oral sex on had male genitalia. I only mention this because I simultaneously posted my question in another doctor's forum and he thought I meant male-to-female transsexual and that I had performed cunnilingus (which was not the case).

2) I was not tested with a throat or anal swab. I did have both a penile swab and a urinalysis that came back negative for Gonorrhea and chlamydia. At the time of the second round of testing testing, I was preemptively given 1 g oral Azythromycin as well as a double dose of some other antibiotic injected into my butt. I was told this would take care of any possible infections, as I was still concerned.

I assume this would destroy Gonorrhea and Chlamydia in any form (anal, penile, oral)?

3) As I was negative for penile G and C, and I had tested neg for HIV, I had resumed contact with my female partner (before taking antibiotics). However, as she never contacts my anus, and as I had no penile Gonorrhea or Chlamydia, the only risk I assume would have been oral Gonorrhea for her? I was told however that it usually remedies itself after a few weeks?

Basically, the question I am trying to raise (rather ineloquently) is that, as I did not have Gonorrhea or Chlamydia of the penis, and I assume if she stays away from my butt she wont contract anything that way, the only possible transmission to her would be if I had it in my throat? That said, is it likely/possible to transmit oral Gonorrhea (before I had taken the antibiotics) from my throat to hers, then from her throat to my penis?


Sorry this is so long, I know how busy you are.

Thanks again.
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  #4  
Old 04-08-2011, 09:40 AM
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None of this woudl change my intial assessment and would not increase or change the risks mentioned.
You were given treatment effective for both Chlamydi and Gonorrhoe, regardless of their location. Therefore no need to worry.
If you had contracted throat Chlamydia or Gonorrhoea and you had sex with your partner before being treated, the only way that you might pass it on to her would be through performing oral sex on her, though quite difficult. It is much more commonly transmitted when performing oral sex on a penis, for obvious anatomical reasons. Therefore I do not think that you need to worry.
Best wishes,
José
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  #5  
Old 04-25-2011, 11:10 AM
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Default Clarification and further donation

Hi Dr. Jose / Dr. Sean,

I wrote a reply a few days ago but i'm not sure it was successfully submitted. I'm sorry trouble you further, but I wanted a few clarifications about the above situation in light of what my doctor has told me.

I've now had 3 DUOs at 4, 6.5, and 13.5 weeks - all NEGATIVE.

1) Regarding the anal fingering, if there were any genetic materials (semen, precum, saliva, blood) on the transsexual's finger in my anus (which had an anal fissure, but not very deep penetration), is there any significant risk there of HIV or HCV? And any risk if genetic materials were present on the outside of the condom then into my mouth?

2) I'm only nervous because my doctor told me that 6 months is considered conclusive for HIV, not 3 months, as HCV and other various factors could delay seroconversion.

3) Am I at risk of delayed seroconversion after 3 months? Wouldn't the p24 antigen show up before 3 months anyway even if there were late seroconversion?

4) Regardless of anyone's risk of exposure, wouldn't a 3 month DUO be conclusive for everyone?

Thanks so much, I will make another donation. I was worry free, then my doctor got me all worried again!
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  #6  
Old 04-25-2011, 06:53 PM
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Default hiv testing questions

Hello

Please make a nice big donation to Help for Hero's.

Quote:
I've now had 3 DUOs at 4, 6.5, and 13.5 weeks - all NEGATIVE. meaning, you are negative

1) Regarding the anal fingering, if there were any genetic materials (semen, precum, saliva, blood) on the transsexual's finger in my anus (which had an anal fissure, but not very deep penetration), is there any significant risk there of HIV or HCV? noAnd any risk if genetic materials were present on the outside of the condom then into my mouth?no - besides the evidence is that you are HIV negative

2) I'm only nervous because my doctor told me that 6 months is considered conclusive for HIV, not 3 months, as HCV and other various factors could delay seroconversion.I disagree

3) Am I at risk of delayed seroconversion after 3 months?no - there's nothing wrong with you Wouldn't the p24 antigen show up before 3 months anyway even if there were late seroconversion?yep

4) Regardless of anyone's risk of exposure, wouldn't a 3 month DUO be conclusive for everyone?yes

Thanks so much, I will make another donation. I was worry free, then my doctor got me all worried again!
if you ask a thousand doctors/lawyers/accountants the same question you'll get a thousand different answers from each group. in your case, there is nothing wrong with you.

best wishes, sean
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